Posted by: Jack Mankin (MrBatspeed@aol.com) on Fri May 21 12:40:47 2004

>>> OK. Then I'll be a little different. I'll give you my answer using my defintion of torque. And, since you won't give me yours I won't give you mine.

So......my answer is no. Not unless/until the hitter is fooled and the hands take over. <<<

Hi Teacherman

It is good to hear you have formed your own “defintion” (definition) for torque. Please define it with as much detail as possible and explain why torque (as you define it) is only applied to the bat when the batter is fooled.

Jack Mankin